A 50-year-old man with an eGFR of 45 mL/min/1.73 m² and persistent albuminuria is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate primary target of therapy to slow CKD progression?AMaintaining haemoglobin above 140 g/LBTight glycaemic control with HbA1c <5.5% regardless of hypoglycaemia riskCAggressive lowering of LDL cholesterol below 1.0 mmol/LDBlood pressure control with ACE inhibitor or ARB to target <130/80 mmHg if toleratedERoutine use of loop diuretics regardless of volume statusCheck my answer