A 35-year-old man returns from Southeast Asia with a 3-day history of watery diarrhoea, mild cramping and no blood or fever. He is drinking adequately and is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate management?AEmpirical ciprofloxacin for 7 daysBEmpirical metronidazole for 10 daysCOral rehydration and symptomatic treatment without antibioticsDStool culture and immediate hospital admissionESingle dose of azithromycin 1 g plus loperamideCheck my answer