A 69-year-old woman with AF (CHA₂DS₂‑VASc 5) had GI bleeding 2 months ago, now resolved. She is reluctant to restart anticoagulation. Which statement is most accurate?AAspirin alone is guideline-preferred after GI bleedingBAnticoagulation should not be restarted for at least 1 yearCDOACs remain preferred over warfarin in eligible patients when resuming anticoagulationDDual antiplatelet therapy is safer and equally effectiveEWarfarin is preferred because it is reversibleCheck my answer