Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

HardNeurologySubarachnoid Hemorrhage Evaluationus-abemus-usmle-step-2us-usmle-step-3

A 50-year-old man presents with thunderclap headache to the ED. Initial noncontrast CT head within 1 hour of onset is negative. He remains neurologically intact. Next best step to assess for SAH if suspicion remains high?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.