A 76-year-old with nonvalvular AF and CHA₂DS₂-VASc 5 has prior GI bleeding now resolved and normal renal function. Which statement regarding antithrombotic choice is correct?AAspirin alone is preferred for high bleeding riskBDOACs are preferred over warfarin unless mechanical valve or moderate-to-severe MSCWarfarin is preferred over DOACs in all patients >=75DDual antiplatelet therapy is equivalent to anticoagulation for stroke preventionENo antithrombotic therapy is recommended at this scoreCheck my answer