Question

A 35-year-old man presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and unintentional weight loss. Laboratory tests show fasting plasma glucose 280 mg/dL and haemoglobin A1c 11.2%. There are no signs of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state or ketoacidosis. According to current diabetes guidelines, which initial management strategy is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Start metformin monotherapy and lifestyle modification only

Answer

Start basal bolus insulin regimen initially with a plan to transition to oral agents once control is achieved

Answer

Start sulfonylurea monotherapy

Answer

Start thiazolidinedione monotherapy

Answer

Delay pharmacologic therapy and repeat labs in 3 months

Practice question