A 74-year-old with nonvalvular AF and prior GI bleed stabilized 2 years ago has CHA₂DS₂-VASc 4 and HAS-BLED 2. Which statement about anticoagulation is most accurate per current guidance?AAspirin alone is acceptable for stroke preventionBOral anticoagulation is recommended; DOACs are preferred over warfarin in eligible patientsCNo antithrombotic therapy due to prior bleedDDual antiplatelet therapy equals anticoagulation for stroke preventionEWarfarin is required for all AF patientsCheck my answer