A 64-year-old with repeated clinic BPs averaging 152/92 mmHg and no compelling indications presents for initial pharmacologic therapy. According to the latest U.S. guideline, what is the best initial approach?AStart two first-line agents from different classes (e.g., thiazide + ACE inhibitor)BStart a single low-dose beta-blockerCDefer pharmacotherapy and repeat BP in 6 monthsDStart clonidine transdermal patchEStart hydralazine monotherapyCheck my answer