Question

A 40-year-old presents with depressed mood for 8 weeks, anhedonia, and poor appetite. No psychotic features or mania. According to NICE, which step is most appropriate initially?

Accepted Answer

Start an SSRI (e.g. sertraline) plus psychological therapy

Answer

Immediate referral to psychiatry

Answer

Prescribe antipsychotic medication

Answer

Inpatient admission

Answer

ECT (Electroconvulsive therapy)

Practice question

A 40-year-old presents with depressed mood for 8 weeks, anhedonia, and poor appetite. No psychotic features or mania. According to NICE, which step is most appropriate initially?