Question

A 30-year-old man presents with a single painless ulcer on his penis and mildly enlarged non-tender inguinal lymph nodes. Which is the most likely cause of this lesion?

Accepted Answer

Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

Answer

Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

Answer

Genital herpes (HSV-2)

Answer

Lymphogranuloma venereum (Chlamydia trachomatis)

Answer

Granuloma inguinale (Klebsiella granulomatis)

Practice question

A 30-year-old man presents with a single painless ulcer on his penis and mildly enlarged non-tender inguinal lymph nodes. Which is the most likely cause of this lesion?