A 58-year-old man presents with an erythematous, hot, tender left lower leg with a poorly demarcated edge. He is febrile but haemodynamically stable a...

Question

A 58-year-old man presents with an erythematous, hot, tender left lower leg with a poorly demarcated edge. He is febrile but haemodynamically stable and systemically only mildly unwell. There is no abscess. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Oral Flucloxacillin for 5–7 days

Answer

Topical steroid cream and review

Answer

Immediate IV broad-spectrum antibiotics as an inpatient

Answer

Oral antiviral therapy

Answer

No antibiotics; supportive care only

uk-plab-1 MCQ (SBA): Cellulitis

A 58-year-old man presents with an erythematous, hot, tender left lower leg with a poorly demarcated edge. He is febrile but haemodynamically stable and systemically only mildly unwell. There is no abscess. What is the most appropriate initial management?