A 40-year-old man presents with a painful, erythematous, hot left lower leg with poorly demarcated margins, low-grade fever and no abscess. He is syst...

Question

A 40-year-old man presents with a painful, erythematous, hot left lower leg with poorly demarcated margins, low-grade fever and no abscess. He is systemically well and has no MRSA risk factors. Which oral antibiotic regimen is most appropriate for initial management?

Accepted Answer

Cefalexin 500 mg orally 6-hourly

Answer

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole orally twice daily

Answer

Amoxicillin-clavulanate 875/125 mg orally twice daily

Answer

Oral vancomycin

Answer

Azithromycin 500 mg once daily

au-racgp MCQ (SBA): Cellulitis

A 40-year-old man presents with a painful, erythematous, hot left lower leg with poorly demarcated margins, low-grade fever and no abscess. He is systemically well and has no MRSA risk factors. Which oral antibiotic regimen is most appropriate for initial management?