A 42-year-old man presents with low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and reduced appetite for 6 weeks. He has no psychotic features and no history of mania...

Question

A 42-year-old man presents with low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and reduced appetite for 6 weeks. He has no psychotic features and no history of mania. There is no active suicidal intent. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy in primary care?

Accepted Answer

Start a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and offer psychological therapy

Answer

Prescribe benzodiazepines alone for 3 months

Answer

Admit involuntarily to an inpatient psychiatric unit

Answer

Start antipsychotic medication

Answer

Recommend herbal supplements only

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Major depressive disorder

A 42-year-old man presents with low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and reduced appetite for 6 weeks. He has no psychotic features and no history of mania. There is no active suicidal intent. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy in primary care?