A 48-year-old man with chronic knee osteoarthritis has persistent pain despite regular paracetamol and topical NSAIDs. He has no history of peptic ulc...

Question

A 48-year-old man with chronic knee osteoarthritis has persistent pain despite regular paracetamol and topical NSAIDs. He has no history of peptic ulcer disease or cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate next pharmacological step?

Accepted Answer

Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration

Answer

Immediate long-term opioid therapy

Answer

Oral corticosteroids

Answer

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs

Answer

No further options; refer directly for joint replacement

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Osteoarthritis of the knee

A 48-year-old man with chronic knee osteoarthritis has persistent pain despite regular paracetamol and topical NSAIDs. He has no history of peptic ulcer disease or cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate next pharmacological step?