A 68-year-old woman with a prior low-trauma vertebral fracture presents for follow-up. DEXA scan shows a T-score of −2.7 at the femoral neck. She is a...

Question

A 68-year-old woman with a prior low-trauma vertebral fracture presents for follow-up. DEXA scan shows a T-score of −2.7 at the femoral neck. She is a non-smoker, drinks minimal alcohol and has no secondary causes of osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Initiate a bisphosphonate such as alendronate

Answer

Calcium and vitamin D supplementation alone

Answer

Recommend high-dose systemic glucocorticoids for bone pain

Answer

No treatment; repeat DEXA in 5 years

Answer

Start hormone replacement therapy solely for fracture prevention

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Postmenopausal osteoporosis