A 34-year-old man presents with a painful swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has a history of similar attacks. Synovial fluid from the joint ...

Question

A 34-year-old man presents with a painful swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has a history of similar attacks. Synovial fluid from the joint shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals and no organisms. What is the MOST appropriate initial pharmacological treatment if there are no contraindications?

Accepted Answer

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) such as indomethacin

Answer

Allopurinol

Answer

Colchicine loading followed by low-dose maintenance

Answer

Oral prednisolone 50 mg daily

Answer

Probenecid

au-racgp MCQ (SBA): Acute gout