A 30-year-old woman presents with a single, painless, indurated genital ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. She recently had unprotected se...

Question

A 30-year-old woman presents with a single, painless, indurated genital ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. She recently had unprotected sex with a new partner. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Accepted Answer

A single intramuscular dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin G

Answer

Acyclovir for 10 days

Answer

Metronidazole for 7 days

Answer

Doxycycline for 7 days

Answer

No treatment is required

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Primary syphilis

A 30-year-old woman presents with a single, painless, indurated genital ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. She recently had unprotected sex with a new partner. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment?