A 56-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is elevated. This is his first attac...

Question

A 56-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is elevated. This is his first attack. Which management strategy is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Treat the acute attack with NSAIDs or colchicine and consider urate-lowering therapy after repeated attacks

Answer

Start allopurinol immediately and ignore gout flare

Answer

Start long-term prednisone

Answer

No treatment is needed as gout resolves spontaneously

Answer

Advise long-term high-protein diet

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Acute gout

A 56-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is elevated. This is his first attack. Which management strategy is most appropriate?