A 38-year-old man presents with a hot, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. Symptoms began overnight. He has a history of hyperuricaemia. Examinat...

Question

A 38-year-old man presents with a hot, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. Symptoms began overnight. He has a history of hyperuricaemia. Examination suggests acute gout. He has no renal impairment or peptic ulcer disease. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?

Accepted Answer

High-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) if no contraindications

Answer

Low-dose aspirin

Answer

Colchicine at standard dose

Answer

Allopurinol initiation during the acute attack

Answer

Oral corticosteroids only

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Acute gout

A 38-year-old man presents with a hot, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. Symptoms began overnight. He has a history of hyperuricaemia. Examination suggests acute gout. He has no renal impairment or peptic ulcer disease. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?