A 68-year-old woman with a low trauma vertebral fracture is found on DEXA scanning to have a T score of -2.8 at the lumbar spine. She has normal renal...

Question

A 68-year-old woman with a low trauma vertebral fracture is found on DEXA scanning to have a T score of -2.8 at the lumbar spine. She has normal renal function and no contraindications. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological therapy to reduce future fracture risk?

Accepted Answer

Alendronate or another oral bisphosphonate

Answer

Calcitriol alone

Answer

Calcium supplements alone

Answer

Raloxifene

Answer

Long-term systemic corticosteroids

au-racgp MCQ (SBA): Osteoporosis bisphosphonate first line

A 68-year-old woman with a low trauma vertebral fracture is found on DEXA scanning to have a T score of -2.8 at the lumbar spine. She has normal renal function and no contraindications. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological therapy to reduce future fracture risk?