A 48-year-old man presents with his first episode of a sudden severe right first metatarsophalangeal joint pain, swelling and erythema, starting overn...

Question

A 48-year-old man presents with his first episode of a sudden severe right first metatarsophalangeal joint pain, swelling and erythema, starting overnight. He has no fever and no history of trauma. He drinks 4-5 beers most evenings. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this acute attack?

Accepted Answer

Low-dose colchicine or a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)

Answer

Allopurinol

Answer

Probenecid

Answer

Long-term oral corticosteroids

Answer

No pharmacological treatment; reassurance only

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Acute gout