A 24-year-old man presents with elevated mood, pressured speech, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity for 10 days, causing major occupational imp...

Question

A 24-year-old man presents with elevated mood, pressured speech, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity for 10 days, causing major occupational impairment. He has no psychotic symptoms. There is no history of substance use. According to CANMAT/ISBD bipolar guidelines, what is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for acute mania?

Accepted Answer

Lithium

Answer

SSRI monotherapy

Answer

Benzodiazepine alone

Answer

Electroconvulsive therapy as first-line

Answer

Psychotherapy alone

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Bipolar I disorder, manic episode