A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and impaired concentration. She has no history of man...

Question

A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and impaired concentration. She has no history of mania or psychosis and denies substance misuse. There is no active suicidal intent, and physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological option?

Accepted Answer

Sertraline

Answer

Amitriptyline

Answer

Diazepam

Answer

Olanzapine

Answer

Lithium carbonate

au-racgp MCQ (SBA): Major depressive disorder