A 30-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder presents with 5 days of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity and risky spending...

Question

A 30-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder presents with 5 days of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity and risky spending. He is currently on no medication. According to CANMAT/ISBD bipolar guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for acute mania?

Accepted Answer

Lithium or an atypical antipsychotic (e.g., quetiapine)

Answer

SSRI antidepressant monotherapy

Answer

Benzodiazepine monotherapy

Answer

Lamotrigine monotherapy

Answer

Psychotherapy alone

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Bipolar I disorder - acute mania management