A 52-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with blood pressure 210/120 mm Hg and a headache. There are no neurologic deficits, chest p...

Question

A 52-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with blood pressure 210/120 mm Hg and a headache. There are no neurologic deficits, chest pain, or papilledema. Serum creatinine is unchanged from baseline, and there is no evidence of acute target-organ damage. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Immediate intravenous nitroprusside infusion

Answer

Rapid reduction of blood pressure to normal within 1 hour

Answer

Gradual reduction of blood pressure with oral agents over 24 to 48 hours

Answer

Emergency dialysis

Answer

Immediate thrombolysis

us-abfm MCQ (SBA): Hypertensive Urgency