A 69-year-old man with AF and prior intracranial hemorrhage cannot take OAC. He asks about stroke prevention options. Which statement is correct?...

Question

A 69-year-old man with AF and prior intracranial hemorrhage cannot take OAC. He asks about stroke prevention options. Which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

Left atrial appendage occlusion is reasonable in those with contraindication to OAC

Answer

Aspirin provides similar stroke prevention as warfarin

Answer

Dual antiplatelet therapy equals anticoagulation efficacy

Answer

No therapy is advised in high bleeding risk

Answer

Switch to low-dose DOAC

"atrial fibrillation" MCQ (SBA): Atrial Fibrillation