A 60-year-old man with AF and prior stroke (CHA₂DS₂-VASc=5) asks about left atrial appendage occlusion instead of OAC due to GI bleeding risk. What is...

Question

A 60-year-old man with AF and prior stroke (CHA₂DS₂-VASc=5) asks about left atrial appendage occlusion instead of OAC due to GI bleeding risk. What is accurate?

Accepted Answer

Percutaneous LAAO is reasonable for patients with AF at increased stroke risk who have contraindication to long-term OAC

Answer

LAAO is first-line for all AF patients

Answer

LAAO eliminates need for any antithrombotic therapy

Answer

LAAO is contraindicated in prior GI bleed

Answer

Aspirin alone is superior to OAC

us-abim MCQ (SBA): LAAO Indications

A 60-year-old man with AF and prior stroke (CHA₂DS₂-VASc=5) asks about left atrial appendage occlusion instead of OAC due to GI bleeding risk. What is accurate?