A 45-year-old with T2DM has A1c 10.8% with polyuria and weight loss. Which is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic strategy?...

Question

A 45-year-old with T2DM has A1c 10.8% with polyuria and weight loss. Which is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic strategy?

Accepted Answer

Start basal insulin with rapid intensification as needed

Answer

Start metformin only

Answer

Start GLP-1 receptor agonist monotherapy

Answer

Start sulfonylurea only

Answer

Delay pharmacotherapy and intensify lifestyle

us-abim MCQ (SBA): Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus