A 34-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents with perianal pain and discharge. Examination shows a fluctuant perianal mass and fever. Best initial ...

Question

A 34-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents with perianal pain and discharge. Examination shows a fluctuant perianal mass and fever. Best initial management?

Accepted Answer

Incision and drainage with antibiotics

Answer

High-dose oral steroids

Answer

Start azathioprine

Answer

Metronidazole alone

Answer

Increase mesalazine dose

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Perianal abscess in Crohn’s

A 34-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents with perianal pain and discharge. Examination shows a fluctuant perianal mass and fever. Best initial management?