A 70-year-old man presents with painless, sudden loss of vision in one eye; afferent pupillary defect and pale retina with cherry-red spot. First mana...

Question

A 70-year-old man presents with painless, sudden loss of vision in one eye; afferent pupillary defect and pale retina with cherry-red spot. First management step?

Accepted Answer

Ocular massage and urgent ophthalmology referral

Answer

Topical beta-blocker

Answer

High-dose oral steroids

Answer

No action; review in 48 h

Answer

Start antibiotics

mrcem sba MCQ (SBA): Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

A 70-year-old man presents with painless, sudden loss of vision in one eye; afferent pupillary defect and pale retina with cherry-red spot. First management step?