A 40-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of persistent dry cough, worsening shortness of breath on exertion, fever, and malaise. He is HIV pos...

Question

A 40-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of persistent dry cough, worsening shortness of breath on exertion, fever, and malaise. He is HIV positive with a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³ and not currently on antiretroviral therapy. His chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Oxygen saturation is 90% on air. What is the most likely opportunistic infection?

Accepted Answer

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

Answer

Bacterial pneumonia

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonitis

Answer

Fungal pneumonia (e.g., Aspergillus)

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)