A 30-year-old man returns from Africa with a painless genital ulcer followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes). Which sexually transmitted ...

Question

A 30-year-old man returns from Africa with a painless genital ulcer followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes). Which sexually transmitted infection is most likely?

Accepted Answer

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1-L3

Answer

Syphilis (primary)

Answer

Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

Answer

Genital herpes (HSV-2)

Answer

Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Sexually Transmitted Infections

A 30-year-old man returns from Africa with a painless genital ulcer followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes). Which sexually transmitted infection is most likely?