A 42-year-old presents with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. His D-dimer is significantly elevated. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms ...

Question

A 42-year-old presents with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. His D-dimer is significantly elevated. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the recommended initial anticoagulation regimen in most adult patients without cancer?

Accepted Answer

Rivaroxaban or apixaban monotherapy

Answer

Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) for 5 days, then warfarin

Answer

IV unfractionated heparin followed by aspirin

Answer

LMWH alone for 3 months

Answer

Warfarin monotherapy from day one

Pulmonary Embolism — UKMLA MCQ

A 42-year-old presents with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. His D-dimer is significantly elevated. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the recommended initial anticoagulation regimen in most adult patients without cancer?