A 45-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding but has a normal pelvic exam. She has completed her family. According to NICE guidelines, wh...

Question

A 45-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding but has a normal pelvic exam. She has completed her family. According to NICE guidelines, what is the first-line pharmacological management for menorrhagia if there is no desire for fertility?

Accepted Answer

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)

Answer

Tranexamic acid

Answer

Norethisterone

Answer

GnRH analogues

Answer

Endometrial ablation

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Obstetrics & Gynaecology

A 45-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding but has a normal pelvic exam. She has completed her family. According to NICE guidelines, what is the first-line pharmacological management for menorrhagia if there is no desire for fertility?