ukmla MCQ (SBA): Acromegaly

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MediumEndocrinologyAcromegalyukmlamrcp part 1

A 45-year-old man has acromegaly due to a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma. What is the first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines?

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ukmla MCQ: Acromegaly — Answer & Explanation | iatroX